1. Which of the following best describe the customer benefits of change management in the operate phase?
A. reduce unnecessary disruption, delays, rework, and other problems by establishing test cases for use in
verifying that the system meets operational, functional, and interface requirements
B. improve its ability to make sound financial decisions by developing a business case based on its business
requirements and establishing a basis for developing a technology strategy
C. reduce operating costs and limit change-related incidents by providing a consistent and efficient set of
processes
D. improve the return on investment and hasten migration by identifying and planning for necessary infrastructure
changes and resource additions, as well as reduce deployment costs by analyzing gaps early in the planning
process to determine what is needed to support the system
Answer: C 
2. Which of these is the best definition of the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach?
A. It defines the minimum set of services required to successfully deploy and operate a set of Cisco technologies.
B. It determines how best to price Cisco products.
C. It provides partners with a useful way to leverage Cisco resources.
D. It consists of these phases: plan, deploy, support, and troubleshoot.
Answer: A 
3. What two types of telephony interfaces are used for PSTN connectivity? (Choose two.)
A. Digital
B. Optical
C. Analog
D. CDMA
Answer: AC 
4. Which statement correctly describes the keyswitch model of deployment for call processing?
A. All IP Phones are able to answer any incoming PSTN call on any line.
B. PSTN calls are routed through a receptionist or automated attendant.
C. All IP Phones in the system have a single unique extension number.
Answer: A
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5. Which definition best describes the implementation service component within the implement phase?
A. providing a step-by-step plan that details the installation and service-commission tasks required in order to
create a controlled-implementation environment that emulates a customer network
B. assessing the ability of site facilities to accommodate proposed infrastructure changes
C. developing and executing proof-of-concept tests, validating high-level infrastructure design, and identifying
any design enhancements
D. installing, configuring, and integrating systems components based on an implementation plan developed in
earlier phases
E. improving a customer's infrastructure security system
Answer: D 
6. A customer with a small enterprise network of 15 remote sites is trying to optimize its VPN by migrating some
remote sites using Frame Relay connections to the Internet to using cable connections to the Internet. Minimizing
costs is one of the customer's highest priorities. Only a moderate amount of IP traffic is passing through the
network, most of which is from the remote sites to the central site. IPSec should be used to provide VPN
functionality and basic confidentiality is desired. 
Based on the traffic patterns, which topology would be the easiest for this customer to set up and manage?
A. full mesh
B. partial mesh
C. point-to-multipoint
D. hub-and-spoke
Answer: D 
7. How can the proper configuration of Voice Mail be tested at an end user's IP phone?
A. Press the "i" button.
B. Press the "Settings" button.
C. Press the "Services" button.
D. Press the "Messages" button.
Answer: D
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8. In what location is it recommended that the Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series WLSM be placed?
A. distribution layer
B. core layer
C. access layer
D. network management functional module
Answer: A 
9. Which of these is an accurate list of Cisco Lifecycle Services phases?
A. initiation, planning, analysis, design, development, implementation, operations and maintenance
B. project planning, site assessment, risk assessment, solution selection and acquisition, testing, and operations
C. prepare, plan, design, implement, operate, and optimize
D. analysis, design, deployment, testing, implementation, and production
E. presales, project planning, development, implementation, operations testing, and operations sign-off
Answer: C 
10. What port role assignment would you make for the Gigabit Ethernet port on the Cisco CE520 used in the
Smart Business Communications System?
A. IP Phone and desktop
B. Cisco UC520
C. Cisco CE520
D. Cisco 871W
Answer: B 
11. Refer to the exhibit. Switches A and C are running PVST+ STP, and Switch B is running 802.1Q STP. If the
BPDU of the root in VLAN 1 is better than the BPDU of the root in VLAN 2, then there is no blocking port in the
VLAN 2 topology. The BPDU of VLAN 2 never makes a "full circle" around the topology; it is replaced by the
VLAN 1 BPDU on the B-C link, because B runs only one STP merged with VLAN 1 STP of PVST+. Thus, there
is a forwarding loop. 
What does PVST+ do to correct this?
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A. Switch A sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch
C. Switch C will put port C-B into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
B. Switch B sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch A) towards Switch
C. Switch C will put port C-B into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
C. Switch C sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch
C. Switch A will put port C-B into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
D. Switch A sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch
B. Switch A will put port C-B into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
Answer: A 
12. Which interface on the Cisco UC520 is assigned an IP address either statically or through DHCP?
A. WAN interface
B. LAN interface
C. Switchport
D. PSTN Interface
Answer: A
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13. Which benefit can be obtained by using the change management service component in the operate phase?
A. reduced operating costs, due to a consistent framework for making necessary changes in an efficient and
accountable manner
B. greater accuracy, completeness, and timeliness of network configuration information
C. notification provided to interested parties regarding problems that have been identified, and a system that scales
with customer requirements
D. improved system service quality and fewer disruptions
Answer: A 
14. What are two ways to test the LAN connectivity on the Cisco CE520? (Choose two.)
A. Ping the IP address of the Cisco-Data Access VLAN from the Cisco UC520 console.
B. Ping the IP address of the Cisco-Data VLAN from a device attached to the Cisco CE520.
C. Ping default gateway from the Cisco UC520.
D. Ping the IP address of the Cisco-Voice VLAN from a device attached to the Cisco CE520.
E. Ping default gateway from the Cisco CE520.
F. Ping the IP address of the Cisco-Distribution VLAN from the Cisco UC520 console.
Answer: BD 
15. Which statement correctly describes configuration of the VPN server?
A. It requires definition of a Group ID for remote clients.
B. It requires configuration of port settings for the VPN server on the Cisco UC520.
C. It uses a preshared key for remote device authentication.
D. The WAN interface is preselected.
Answer: C 
16. In a new Cisco UC520 installation, when must IP routing be configured?
A. When the service provider assigns static IP information.
B. When the service provider assigns dynamic IP information.
C. When analog PSTN trunks are used.
D. When digital PSTN trunks are used.
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Answer: A 
17. Which two benefits will a client see from adding a Wireless LAN Controller to their Smart Business
Communications System? (Choose two.)
A. allow for guest access
B. increase connection speeds
C. add additional access points
D. network management with CLI
Answer: AC 
18. Which critical issue should you account for when implementing an integrated network security management
design?
A. NAT interoperates with encrypted voice traffic
B. host-based intrusion detection systems reside in the network
C. all network devices are time-synchronized
D. SNMP community read-write strings are configured to allow for total management access
Answer: C 
19. In which of these phases is a customer's current network infrastructure assessed?
A. plan
B. design
C. implement
D. prepare
Answer: A 
20. To save time during rediscovery, which three types of device information does Cisco Configuration Assistant
retain? (Choose three.)
A. IP Address
B. MAC Address
C. Host Name
D. Communication Protocol
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E. Port Settings
F. Topology
Answer: ACD 
21. Which dial plan scenario may require PSTN trunks for outbound calls?
A. All the employees, the auto attendant or receptionist, and the voice-mail system have direct inward dial
numbers using analog trunks.
B. A subset of the employees, the auto attendant or receptionist, and the voice-mail system have direct inward dial
numbers, and the remaining employees do not have direct inward dial numbers.
C. All the employees, the auto attendant or receptionist, and the voice-mail system have direct inward dial
numbers using digital interfaces.
Answer: A 
22. What are two configurable options for Call Control on the Cisco UC520? (Choose two.)
A. Shared Key
B. PBX
C. Key System
D. Encryption
E. Call Waiting
Answer: BC 
23. Refer to the exhibit. According to the Cisco VPN Client software outputs shown, which two statements are
correct about the connection entry named isr? (Choose two.)
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A. HMAC-SHA1 is used to authenticate the remote users.
B. Preshared key is used to authenticate the remote peer.
C. AES is used to provide data confidentiality.
D. The Cisco VPN Client software is assigned an internal IP address of 192.168.1.1.
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E. The PC that is running the Cisco VPN Client software will not have access to the local LAN once the PC is
connected into the VPN.
Answer: BE 
24. Refer to the exhibit. According to the Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager window, which statement
about address translation is correct? 
A. Using Network Address Translation, any host on the DMZ1 subnet (172.16.1.0) will be translated to a mapped
address on the outside interface of 192.168.1.11.
B. Using port address translation, DMZ2 host 172.16.10.2 will be translated on DMZ1 to IP address 172.16.1.22
with a dynamically assigned port address.
C. Using Network Address Translation, host 10.0.1.10 on the inside network will be dynamically translated to a
mapped address from the address pool of 192.168.1.20 to 192.168.1.94.
D. Using port address translation, outside host 192.168.1.10 with a dynamically assigned port address will be
translated to 10.0.1.11 on the inside interface.
Answer: C 
25. Which two are benefits of installing Cisco Monitor Director at an SMB site for the partner selling the solution?
(Choose two.)
A. simplifies Smart Business Communications System installation
B. allows the end customer to get free software updates
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C. monthly recurring revenue model
D. automated monthly reporting on system performance
Answer: CD 
26. Which Cisco Catalyst Express 520 feature optimizes quality of service?
A. Cisco Configuration Assistant
B. Cisco Smartports
C. Cisco Network Admission Control
D. Cisco Smart Assist
Answer: B 
27. Which three business requirements development activities are performed in the prepare phase before creating
a technology strategy? (Choose three.)
A. identifying and assessing customer business requirements
B. documenting and categorizing customer business requirements in terms of performance, availability, capacity,
and security
C. producing a documented technology strategy
D. creating a bill of materials
E. presenting documented business requirements to a customer and having the customer validate them
F. completing a site survey
Answer: ABE 
28. Refer to the exhibit. This display has been truncated to remove information that is not relevant to the question.
What would be a reason that there have been 21 ignored packets? 
A. Ethernet0 has no CDP neighbors.
B. There are no free input buffers to accept new packets.
C. There are no free output buffers for packets, which are traversing the router, to go into for transmission.
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D. Ethernet0 and the neighbor that it is connected to are not running the same routing protocol.
E. This is not a valid error display. The display has been modified to show that there have been ignored packets.
Answer: B 
29. After configuring VTP, you no longer receive updates as expected. Which command can you use to verify the
number of VTP advertisements being transmitted?
A. show vtp database
B. show vtp counters
C. show vtp statistics
D. show vtp status
Answer: B 
30. You enter the command show ip ospf neighbor and see "two-way/DROTHER" listed as the state for neighbor
10.1.1.1. What does this status indicate?
A. The neighbor 10.1.1.1 is not a DR or BDR.
B. The neighbor relationship with 10.1.1.1 has not yet completed.
C. DR and BDR election is in progress.
D. The neighbor 10.1.1.1 is the BDR.
Answer: A 
31. Which design phase service component includes the development and documentation of the test case or cases
used to verify that a deployed infrastructure meets operational, functional, and interface requirements?
A. Implementation Plan
B. Business Plan
C. Staging Plan
D. Detailed Design Development
E. Systems Acceptance Test Plan Development
Answer: E 
32. Which implement phase service component consists of explaining the benefits and limitations of purchased
support options to a customer and ensuring that the customer understands operational processes and
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responsibilities?
A. Staging and System Migration
B. Post Implementation Support Handoff Meeting
C. Detailed Design Development
D. Staff Training
Answer: B 
33. In which of these phases is a customer's network assessed to determine its system readiness?
A. plan
B. design
C. operate
D. implement
Answer: A 
34. How many voice expansion slots are provided by the Cisco UC520?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
Answer: A 
35. A concern has been expressed that the switched infrastructure in an integrated network is vulnerable to VLAN
hopping attacks. Which two configuration statements can be used to mitigate VLAN hopping? (Choose two.)
A. switchport port-security
B. switchport port-security tagging
C. switchport access vlan
D. switchport double-tag snooping
E. switchport mode access
Answer: CE 
36. Which network management tool is designed to allow businesses to manage up to 40 devices?
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A. CiscoWorks Unrestricted
B. CiscoWorks SNMS
C. Campus Manager
D. Resource Management Essentials
Answer: B 
37. You are troubleshooting OSPF neighbor establishment problems, which are occurring over Frame Relay
interfaces that use the default OSPF network type. What should you verify in the router configuration?
A. the ip ospf network point-to-point statement under the Frame Relay interface
B. the ip ospf priority 0 statement on the Frame Relay interface on the designated router
C. the neighbor statements on the Frame Relay interface
D. the frame-relay map statement on the Frame Relay interface
Answer: D 
38. You are configuring a VLAN and the switch you are using requires that you do so within the VLAN database.
Which command allows you to enter the VLAN database?
A. Switch# vlan database
B. Switch(config)# vlan database
C. Switch(config-if)# vlan database
D. Switch(vlan)# vlan database
Answer: A 
39. Which two statements best describe the wireless core feature set using autonomous access points when
implementing repeater topology? (Choose two.)
A. RF overlap between access points should be 10 to 15 percent with unique channels configured.
B. RF overlap between primary and repeater access points should be 10 to 15 percent with the same channel
configured.
C. RF overlap between primary and repeater access points should be 50 percent with the same channel configured.
D. RF overlap between primary and repeater access points should be 50 percent with unique channels configured.
E. Clients that are associated with the repeater access point will have 10 to 15 percent less data throughput than
clients that are associated with the primary root access point.
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F. Clients that are associated with the repeater access point will have 50 percent less data throughput than clients
that are associated with the primary root access point.
Answer: CF 
40. Refer to the exhibit. The Cisco Aironet 802.11a/b/g Wireless LAN Client Adapter has two LEDs. Which two
LED states indicate that the card is associated to an access point and is working properly? (Choose two.) 
A. green LED off; amber LED solid
B. green LED off; amber LED blinking sporadically
C. green LED blinking quickly; amber LED blinking quickly
D. green LED blinking slowly; amber LED blinking slowly
E. green LED blinking slowly; amber LED blinking quickly
Answer: CD 
41. Refer to the exhibit. The tables contain information from the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager
configuration of Router A and Router B. Traffic between Host 1 and Host 2 is not successfully establishing the
site-to-site VPN between Router A and Router B. What is the mostly likely cause of this fault?
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A. The IPSec and IKE encryption methods do not match. They all have to be either 3DES or AES.
B. Router A is using a standard IP ACL (100-149) while Router B is using a turbo ACL (150-199).
C. The D-H Group settings on the two routers are set to group 2. They must be set to group 1 for SHA-1.
D. The IPSec policy map names on the two routers do not match. They must be the same on both routers.
E. The IPSec rules on the two routers are not permitting the correct interesting traffic.
Answer: E 
42. OSPF routes are being redistributed into EIGRP but they are not showing up in the routing table. What are two
possible causes? (Choose two.)
A. CEF has not been enabled.
B. Synchronization has been turned off.
C. Incorrect distribute lists have been configured.
D. No default metric has been configured for EIGRP.
E. The ip classless command is missing.
F. There are mismatched autonomous system numbers.
Answer: CD
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43. Which two statements best describe the wireless implementation of Cisco Aironet root and non-root bridging?
(Choose two.)
A. Point-to-point access points can be used if one is root and the other is non-root.
B. WGB can be used with an access point if the distance is less than one mile.
C. Root mode must be enabled only on one side in a point-to-point link to interoperate with other vendors and
comply with 802.11.
D. Up to 17 non-root bridges can associate to a root bridge.
E. Point-to-point WGB can be used if total number of PCs is fewer than eight.
Answer: BD 
44. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct about what is displayed? (Choose two.) 
A. The IP address that is used for the router ID must be reachable.
B. Router 1 is the designated router because it has the lowest configured IP address.
C. Router 1 is the designated router because it has the highest configured loopback address.
D. If Router 1 had a PRI of 0, it could not be a designated router or a backup designated router.
E. Router 1 has had its ID manually configured by using the router-ID command.
Answer: CD 
45. The customer wants to implement wireless security through implementation of WPAv2. Which component of
WPAv2 would limit the rollout because of the continued use of old access points?
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A. 48-bit IV
B. AES
C. TKIP
D. MIC
Answer: B 
46. A company needs to provide site-to-site VPN, remote access VPN, and firewall protection. Which device best
supports all three functions?
A. Cisco PIX
B. Cisco ASA
C. Cisco Concentrator
D. Cisco Router and Security Device Manager
Answer: B 
47. Which two statements are correct about using Cisco Router and Security Device Manager (SDM) to configure
the OSPF routing protocol? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco SDM enforces the creation of area 0 when configuring OSPF.
B. Cisco SDM will use the supplied wildcard mask to exclude the host bits from the configured network address.
C. Cisco SDM allows the configuration of an area range to allow route summarization between OSPF areas.
D. Cisco SDM allows the selection of OSPFv1 or OSPFv2.
E. Cisco SDM allows the configuration of passive interfaces.
Answer: BE 
48. Refer to the exhibit. R2 is always in the init state. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.) 
A. R2 is seeing hello packets from R1.
B. R2 is not seeing hello packets from R1.
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C. The exchanging of data between R1 and R2 is occurring because each is sending hello packets.
D. Two-way communication has not been established between R1 and R2 because R2 is not seeing its router ID in
the hello packets that it is receiving from R1.
E. R2 has an access list defined for S0 that is blocking an OSPF multicast IP address of 224.0.0.5.
Answer: AD 
49. Which two features are only supported when using the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager (SDM)
Advanced Firewall wizard and not supported when using the Cisco SDM Basic Firewall wizard? (Choose two.)
A. deep-packet inspections
B. IP unicast Reverse Path Forwarding on the outside (untrusted) interface
C. DMZ services
D. custom inspection rules
E. proxy authentication
Answer: CD 
50. When troubleshooting poor network performance, which two symptoms would typically be associated with a
network layer problem? (Choose two.)
A. Packet loss is more than 30 percent.
B. There is excessive broadcast traffic.
C. There are excessive CRC errors.
D. Pings succeed only part of the time.
E. Slips are detected on WAN interfaces.
F. ARP requests are timing out.
Answer: AD