1. What is the primary benefit of the "time-to-live" field in the IP header?
A. To improve buffer utilization
B. To reduce the impact of routing loops
C. To allow calculation of round-trip delays
D. To remind us that all earthly joys are fleeting
E. To avoid delivery of packets that are no longer useful
Answer: B 
2. A router interface address is 180.60.45.96 with a mask of 255.255.255.224. What configuration statement will
allow this interface to participate in OSPF Area 0?
A. router ospf 1 network 180.60.45.96 255.255.255.32 area 0
B. router ospf 1 network 180.60.45.96 0.255.255.224 area 0
C. router ospf 1 network 180.60.45.96 0.0.0.31 area 0
D. router ospf 1 network 180.60.45.96 0.0.0.224 area 0
Answer: C 
3. An IGX-8 identifies itself as an IGX-32 on the configuration screen.  What has gone wrong?
A. The NPM was originally in an IGX-32.
B. Database corruption has occurred.
C. The user must physically set a jumper on the SCM to correct this.
D. Use the setnovram command to change the switch type.
Answer: C 
4. In PNNI networks, AESA has the following general format:
A. 12-byte network prefix plus a 7-byte End System Identifier plus 1 byte Selector
B. 11-byte network prefix plus an 8-byte End System Identifier plus 1 byte Selector
C. 7-byte network prefix plus a 12-byte End System Identifier plus 1 byte Selector.
D. 13-byte network prefix, a 6-byte End System Identifier plus 1 byte Selector
Answer: D 
5. To eliminate the need for adjacent routers on broadcast networks to form n(n-1)/2 adjacencies, IS-IS defines a
TestInside    350-023 pseudonode or Designated Intermediate System, DIS.  All router on the broadcast medium form an adjacency
with the DIS.  The Backup DIS is called:
A. Redundant DIS
B. BDR
C. There is no concept of a backup DIS in IS-IS
D. Designated Redundant System
Answer: C 
6. Cisco/StrataCom (Gang of four) LMI uses what DLCI for messages?
A. 0
B. 1023
C. It should be configurable, as per the specification.
D. It is negotiated when the ports become active.
Answer: B 
7. Click the Exhibit button to view the topology. Using the above diagram, which are valid BGP AS_Path
Attributes received at Net1 for a route originating from AS65100? (multiple answer) 
A. 200 57000 100 65100
B. 200 57000 100 100
C. 100 57000 200
D. 200 57000 100
E. 65100 100 57000 200
Answer: ADE 
8. The default network clocking source in a BPX network is:
A. The internal oscillator of the lowest-numbered node
TestInside    350-023 B. The internal oscillator of the highest-numbered node
C. Each node's own internal oscillator
D. The clock chip on the network management system
Answer: B 
9. When using IS-IS for IP routing, Dual IS-IS defined by RFC 1195, what is true? (multiple answer)
A. It is necessary to configure a NSAP address.
B. It is not possible to perform both IP and CLNS routing wih the same process.
C. IP address and subnet information is carried in the TLV field on the L-1/L-1 LSPs.
D. Dual IS-IS does not support VLSM information.
Answer: AC 
10. What is true about the DLCI field in the Frame Relay header?
A. It consists of two portions, source and destination, which map data to a logical channel.
B. It generally has significance only between the local switch and the DTE device.
C. It is an optional field in the ITU-T specification.
D. It is present only in data frames sent through the network.
Answer: B 
11. On each LAN segment with multiple bridges running spanning tree, the bridge closest to the:
A. Designated bridge is selected as root bridge
B. Root bridge is selected as designated bridge
C. Root bridge is not selected as designated bridge
D. Designated bridge is not  selected as root bridge
Answer: B 
12. What best describes ADPCM?
A. It stands for Advanced Duplicate Packet Code Marking.
B. It specifies no transmission of data during silent periods of voice conversation.
C. It allows synchronous data to be carried over voice card technology.
D. It compresses voice from 64K per channel to 32K, 24K, or 16K per channel.
TestInside    350-023 E. It compresses voice from 64k to approximately 8k.
Answer: D 
13. What ATM cell header contains a generic flow control (GFC) field?
A. The NNI ATM cell
B. The UNI ATM cell
C. Both UNI and NNI
D. None of the above
Answer: B 
14. What is Fast EtherChannel?
A. A feature to bundle multiple Ethernet point-to-point links quickly into one logical high speed link
B. A feature to bundle multiple Fast-Ethernet point-to-point links into one logical high speed link
C. Another name for full-duplex Fast Ethernet
D. Another name for Gigabit Ethernet
E. None of the above
Answer: B 
15. While entering commands on a console, the break key is pressed accidentally and the router reboots.  What
action could disable this problem?
A. In configuration mode, enter disable break .
B. In configuration mode, enter no service break .
C. Change the configuration register.
D. Replace the router - this is an invalid response to pressing the break key when past 60 seconds after boot.
Answer: C 
16. A Peer group leader is chosen by:
A. Dynamic process within a peer group
B. All nodes in the peer group
C. The highest node ID as a tiebreaker
D. The lowest node ID as a tiebreaker
TestInside    350-023 E. Selecting the node that is physically connected to a different peer group
Answer: ABC 
17. A router is receiving updates for a subnet from different routing protocols. The administrator wishes to take
advantage of a path via a route with a less favorable Administrative Distance. What can be done to effect this
without losing any of the updates?
A. Configure a static route with an Administrative Distance of 120
B. Use the Router Configuration mode command distance with an appropriate 'weight' for this subnet
C. Create a distribute-list to block this subnet
D. Modify the default-metric weight of the routing protocol offering the more favorable Administrative Distance
Answer: B 
18. What is an advantage of cell technology?
A. Cell technology simplifies the hardware/software architecture allowing for faster switching fabrics.
B. Cells have less overhead.
C. Cell technology guarantees end-to-end error control.
D. Cell technology allows faster switching of IP packets.
Answer: A 
19. Which are characteristcs of VAD?
A. VAD is used with ADPCM voice connections only.
B. VAD makes voice traffic bursty.
C. VAD will add delay to a voice connection.
D. VAD connections use less bandwidth on the trunks.
Answer: BD 
20. In Frame Relay, what devices resend packets that do not transmit correctly?
A. Digital transmission media cabled to monitor ports, as opposed to straight DCE signaling
B. Network end stations
C. Network switches running SNMP management software
D. Special bridging devices within the backbone cloud
TestInside    350-023
Answer: B 
21. A network administrator is using debug commands to check the performance of a network.  What steps can
the administrator take to ensure that the "debug" will not require too much CPU, or at least that she will not have
to reboot the router to disable debug? (multiple answer)
A. Make the debug command as specific as possible
B. Use the max-time parameter of the debug command
C. In configuration mode, enter scheduler interval 15
D. Configure a loopback to channel debug traffic
Answer: AC 
22. The network should always be timed from:
A. A stratum 1 clock
B. The source with the best stratum rating in the network
C. A circuit with timing provided from the carrier
D. A single source
Answer: B 
23. In Frame Relay, the BECN bit is set by:
A. The Frame Relay network, to inform the DTE receiving the frame that congestion was experienced in the path
from source to destination
B. The Frame Relay network, in frames traveling in the opposite direction from those frames that encountered
congestion
C. The receiving DTE, to inform the Frame Relay network that it is overloaded and that the switch should throttle
back
D. The sending DTE, to inform the Frame Relay network that it is overloaded and that the switch should throttle
back
E. Any device that uses an extended DLCI address
Answer: B 
24. What Q.931 message cannot be received in response to sending a Q.931 SETUP message?
TestInside    350-023
A. Alerting
B. Call Proceeding
C. Connect
D. USER Information
E. Progress
Answer: D 
25. Click the Exhibit button to view the routing table. If a router had the three routes listed, which one of the
routes would forward a packet destined for 10.1.1.1? 
A. 10.1.0.0/16 through EIGRP, because EIGRP routes are always preferred over OSPF or static routes.
B. 10.1.0.0/16 static, because static routes are always preferred over OSPF or EIGRP routes.
C. 10.1.1.0/24 through OSPF because the route with the longest prefix is always chosen.
D. Whichever route appears in the routing table first.
E. The router will load share between the 10.1.0.0/16 route through EIGRP and the 10.1.0.0/16 static route.
Answer: C 
26. Typically, if a 1024 byte AAL5 SDU is segmented and sent as an unconforming burst towards the switch
configured as PPD, what cell reaches the far end?
A. Only the first cell makes it through.
B. Only the last cell makes it through.
C. All of the cells make it through, but they have the DE bit set.
D. None of the above
Answer: B 
27. When using Frame Relay service interworking, what is true when building a connection?
A. One side uses native Frame Relay (IETF) and the far side uses native ATM with SNAP or NLPID
encapsulation.
B. Both sides use native Frame Relay.
TestInside    350-023 C. One side expects Frame Relay frames and the other side expects Frame Relay frames segmented into ATM
cells (FR-SSCS).
D. There is no such thing as Frame Relay service interworking.
Answer: A 
28. What is the Generic Flow Control (GFC) header in an ATM NNI cell is used for?
A. Rate control between the ATM NNI switches
B. Rate control between UNI devices
C. GFC has local significance, only, and the value encoded in the field is not end-to-end.
D. None of the above
Answer: C 
29. What is NOT a reason to deploy MPLS?
A. Ubiquitous acceptance and firm standards
B. Traffic engineering capabilities
C. Simplify lookups in software-based routers
D. Potential use in VPN services
Answer: A 
30. What is not a PNNI Signaling Message?
A. CONNECT
B. STATUS ENQUIRY
C. CALL PROCEEDING
D. DELETING
E. ALERTING
F. NOTIFY
Answer: D 
31. In an ATM SVC:
A. The cells for one session will typically follow the same path in the network.
B. The cells for one session will typically route dynamically over different paths following the path with least
TestInside    350-023
current delay.
C. The cells for one session will randomly follow different paths.
D. The WAN Manager will dynamically route each cell over the current best path.
E. The cells from each session will follow different routes due to load balancing.
Answer: A 
32. What is true concerning X.21 control leads?
A. The DCE controls the I lead.
B. The DTE controls the I lead.
C. The DCE controls the C lead.
D. The DTE controls the RTS lead.
Answer: A 
33. In PNNI networks, Crankback is a mechanism that:
A. Reroutes a call that is rejected at any point in the path specified because the path cannot meet the QoS
requirements
B. Provides immediate routing without the delay inherent in waiting for topological updates that can take time to
propagate through the network
C. Returns a message to the node that generated the DTL, that includes information about the cause and location
of the problem
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Answer: D 
34. MPLS traffic engineering routing information is carried by:
A. BGP MEDs
B. MP-BGP
C. OSPF Opaque LSAs or IS-IS TLVs
D. RTP or RTCP packets
Answer: C 
TestInside    350-023 35. What IE is not mandatory in a Q.931 Service msg?
A. Bearer capability
B. Channel ID
C. Message Type
D. Change Status
E. Call Reference
Answer: A 
36. What is true about Cisco IGX VC queues for Frame Relay?
A. There is a queue for every Frame Relay connection going from the CPE to the Cisco IGX switch.
B. They do not apply to ForeSight connections.
C. There is a queue for every Frame Relay port going from the Cisco IGX switch to the CPE.
D. It is recommended that these queues be no larger than 100 bytes.
Answer: A 
37. The difference between the CAS and CCS signaling modes is that for signaling:
A. CAS uses the same channel as for data, while CCS uses a separate channel.
B. CCS uses interpretive mode, while CAS uses transparent mode.
C. CAS uses a separate channel, while CCS uses the same channel as data.
D. CAS uses master/slave dissemination, while CCS uses a single master reference.
Answer: A 
38. To restrict SNMP access to a router, what configuration command could be used?
A. snmp-server community
B. snmp-server enable
C. snmp-server log
D. snmp-server host
Answer: A 
39. What is the purpose of using a null timing buffer (dejitter buffer)?
A. To hold the data temporarily so a CRC can be performed
TestInside    350-023 B. To queue incoming traffic from the CPE so that the SAR function can be performed
C. To accommodate statistic collection on the interface card
D. To smooth out any artificial gaps in the traffic before delivering the bits to the CPE device
Answer: D 
40. Click the Exhibit button to view the topology. In this diagram, Host G is attempting to send a packet to Host A
through Router E. All routers are running EIGRP, and Router E has installed the following route in its routing
table: 10.1.1.0/24 via router F What will occur when Router E receives packets from Host G that are destined for
Host A? 
A. E cannot have a route to 10.1.1.0/24 through F; so it will always choose the path through C.
B. This is a routing loop; E will forward the traffic to F, and F will send the traffic back to E.
C. Router E will forward the traffic to Router F.
D. Router E will forward the traffic to Router F and send a 'host not reachable this direction' ICMP packet to Host
G.
E. Router E will forward the traffic to Router F and send an ICMP redirect to Host G.
Answer: E 
41. Select the group of technologies which are listed in descending order of bandwidth scale:
A. SDH, X.25, ATM
B. DWDM, SDH, Frame Relay
C. DWDM, SDH, ATM
D. ATM, DWDM, Frame Relay
Answer: C 
42. From the LSC perspective, the Label controlled interfaces (LC-ATM) are seen as:
A. ATM interfaces
TestInside    350-023 B. Extended MPLS ATM (XmplsATM) interfaces
C. External Controlled ATM (ExtATM) interfaces
D. Switch interfaces
Answer: B 
43. What does NOT contribute to lowered throughput in practical IP over ATM networks?
A. ILMI overhead
B. SAR delay
C. Cell tax
D. Cell padding
Answer: A 
44. Trunk transmission between two NTM cards consists of:
A. FastPackets
B. ATM cells
C. Either FastPackets or ATM cells
D. Neither FastPackets nor ATM cells
Answer: A 
45. What statement is correct regarding Virtual LANs (VLANs)?
A. It is permissible to bridge inside a VLAN, but not to route between VLANs.
B. It is not permissible to bridge inside a VLAN, but it is valid to route between VLANs.
C. It is permissible to bridge inside a VLAN and to route between VLANs.
D. It is not permissible to bridge inside or route between VLANs.
Answer: C 
46. Click the Exhibit button to view the topology. What mechanism should be employed to limit the "transmit
rate" from Router A to Router C?
TestInside    350-023 
A. Committed Access Rate
B. Traffic Shaping
C. Weighted Fair Queuing
D. Packet Classifcation w/ Weighted Fair Queuing
E. None of the Above
Answer: B 
47. Click the Exhibit button to view the topology. Host D sends a frame to Host B at the same time that Host B
sends a frame to Host D. Bridging is enabled on Router 1, and the two frames collide into each other. Select the
best explanation of why Host B will or will not receive the original frame from Host D: 
A. Host B will receive the frame, since Hosts B & D are in the same VLAN.
B. Host B will receive the frame, since Hosts B and D are in the same routing domain.
C. Host B will not receive the frame, since Hosts B and D are in the same collision domain.
D. Host B will not receive the frame, since Hosts B and D are in different broadcast domains.
TestInside    350-023 E. Host B will receive the frame, since Hosts B and D are in the same bridging domain.
Answer: C 
48. m-law and A-law coding are designed to:
A. Help lower the signal-to-noise ratio when coding from analog to digital
B. Provide a standard method of representing voice samples
C. Use more bits for smaller amplitude signals
D. All of the above
Answer: D 
49. Click the Exhibit button to view the topology. The diagram shows a collapsed L3 switched building backbone
consisting of two L3 switches: W and U. Each L3 switch has a routed interface on every subnet (VLAN) in the
building.  There are no VLAN trunks in the network.  In other words the L3 switches are acting as native
routers.  There are exactly 4 client-side VLANs (subnets): a, b, c, d.  There are exactly 2 server-side VLANs
(subnets): x and y.  There is one routed link (Subnet e) connecting the L3 switches in the core.  How many
equal-cost paths to Subnet d does L3 Switch W keep in its routing table? 
A. 1
TestInside    350-023
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: A 
50. With CGMP enabled, which are unique about the following MAC address range:  01-00-5E-00-00-00 to
01-00-5E-00-00-FF? (multiple answer)
A. CGMP does not prune those MAC addresses.
B. They contain the CGMP Multicast addresses for the IGMP Leaves and IGMP Queries.
C. CGMP filters those MAC addresses when they arrive at the processor
D. They are the reserved IP addresses of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255 for forwarding local IP multicast traffic in a
single Layer 3 hop.
Answer: ABD 
51. The output from the dspcds command indicates an FRM at revision "EJV."  What does this mean?
A. Hardware revision E, firmware model J, firmware revision V
B. Hardware revision J, firmware model E, firmware revision V
C. Hardware revision V, firmware model E, firmware revision J
D. Hardware revision E, firmware model V, firmware revision J
Answer: B