1. VoIP bearer traffic is typically marked to which DSCP value? 
A. cs3 
B. cs7 
C. ef 
D. af41 
E. af31 
F. 0 (default) 
Answer: C 
2. DSCP value "101110" looks like which IP Precedence value to non-DiffServ compliant devices? 
A. IP Precedence 2 
B. IP Precedence 3 
C. IP Precedence 4 
D. IP Precedence 5 
E. IP Precedence 6 
F. IP Precedence 7 
Answer: D 
3. Referring to the exhibit, if RTP header compression is used on the link, the header's overhead on the voice
packet will be reduced by what percent?  
A. from 70% to 33%. 
B. from 70% to 20%. 
C. from 50% to 20%. 
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D. from 50% to 25%. 
Answer: A 
4. When should traffic shaping be implemented on Frame Relay PVCs? (Choose two) 
A. When you want to drop excess traffic above the CIR 
B. When there is a speed mismatch between the central site and the remote site 
C. When using Frame Relay SVCs 
D. When over-subscribing the central site link 
E. When LLQ is implemented on the Frame Relay PVC 
F. When Multilink PPP LFI is implemented on the Frame Relay PVC 
Answer: BD 
5. What are the differences between LLQ and CBWFQ? (Choose two). 
A. LLQ supports the addition of strict priority queuing. 
B. With LLQ, bandwidth allocations for the priority queue and all the CBWFQ queues are configured using the
priority command. 
C. LLQ is configured using MQC and CBWFQ is configured using the fair-queue command. 
D. LLQ priority queue bandwidth is policed with a congestion aware policer. 
E. LLQ does not support WFQ on the default traffic class (class-default). 
Answer: AD 
6. What is jitter? 
A. The total end-to-end delay 
B. The variations of delay 
C. The delay caused by placing the bits on the wire 
D. The time it takes for the bits to transit the physical media 
Answer: B 
7. How many token buckets are needed to support a multi-actions policer that meters conforming, exceeding and
violating traffic? 
A. 1 
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B. 2 
C. 3 
D. 4 
E. 5 
F. 6 
Answer: B 
8. What is the BGP synchronization rule? 
A. Routing information received through an IBGP session is not forwarded to another IBGP neighbor, only to
EBGP neighbors. 
B. Routing information received through an EBGP session is not forwarded to another EBGP neighbor, only to
IBGP neighbors. 
C. BGP neighbor peerings are established and synchronized using the TCP 3-way handshake. 
D. BGP shall not advertise a route until that route has been learned via an IGP also. 
Answer: D 
9. Which BGP attributes can be used to influence inbound traffic flow? (Choose two). 
A. MED 
B. Local Preference 
C. Weight 
D. AS-Path 
Answer: AD 
10. The Attribute field within the IS-IS LSP header contains which of the following flags? (Choose four) 
A. IS-Type 
B. Overload (LSPDBOL) 
C. Pseudonode (PN) 
D. Attached (ATT) 
E. Fragment (Frag-Nr) 
F. Partition (P) 
Answer: ABDF
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11. In the IS-IS Designated Intermediate System (DIS) election process, what criteria is used for DIS selection? 
A. Highest priority first then highest MAC address 
B. Highest priority first then highest IS-IS router ID 
C. Highest IS-IS router ID first then highest priority 
D. Lowest MAC address 
E. Highest loopback interface IP address 
F. Highest IS-IS router ID 
Answer: A 
12. Which OSPF area type accepts type 7 LSA? 
A. Stubby 
B. Totally Stubby 
C. NSSA 
D. Backbone (Area 0) 
E. Stubby or Totally Stubby 
Answer: C 
13. Routes redistributed into an OSPF ASBR are which LSA type? 
A. LSA type 1 
B. LSA type 2 
C. LSA type 3 
D. LSA type 4 
E. LSA type 5 
F. LSA type 6 
Answer: E 
14. What is periodically multicasted (every 10 seconds) by the DIS on a LAN to ensure IS-IS Link State Database
accuracy? 
A. PSNP 
B. CSNP 
C. LSP 
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D. IIH 
E. ISH 
Answer: B 
15. The EIGRP SIA condition occurs when: 
A. There is no acknowledgement to an EIGRP update after a defined timeout period. 
B. There is no response to an EIGRP query after a defined timeout period. 
C. There is a routing loop. 
D. The DUAL process is stuck in a loop due to memory and/or CPU issues. 
E. EIGRP can not successfully establish a neighbor relationship with its neighbor. 
Answer: B 
16. In PIM-SM operations, the first router connected to the multicast source sends the Register message to which
device? 
A. Multicast source 
B. Multicast receiver 
C. RP 
D. RP mapping agent 
E. Designated Router (DR) 
Answer: C 
17. What is the IOS default for switching from the shared tree to the SPT in PIM-SM operations? 
A. After receiving 100Kbps on the shared tree for a given (S,G). 
B. After receiving 1Mbps on the shared tree for a given (S,G). 
C. Immediately after receiving the first packet on the shared tree for a given (S,G). 
D. 60 seconds after receiving the first packet on the shared tree for a given (S,G). 
E. Never switch over to the SPT by default. 
Answer: C 
18. Based on the BGP configuration shown in the exhitbit, which of the following statements are correct? (Choose
three). 
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A. 192.168.1.14 is an Intraconfederation EBGP neighbor. 
B. 10.2.2.1 is an Intraconfederation EBGP neighbor. 
C. 10.3.3.1 is an Intraconfederation IBGP neighbor. 
D. 192.168.1.18 is an EBGP neighbor. 
E. 10.1.1.1 is an IBGP neighbor. 
Answer: BDE 
19. In which state can BGP peers exchange Update messages? 
A. Active 
B. OpenSent 
C. OpenConfirm 
D. Established 
E. Idle 
Answer: D 
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20. Referring to the exhibit, what could be preventing the R1 router from receiving any prefixes from the R2 BGP
neighbor?  
A. The neighbor 192.168.31.2 next-hop-self command is missing on R2. 
B. R1 is using the wrong remote AS number in its neighbor 192.168.31.1 remote-as configuration. 
C. The no sync command is missing on R1. 
D. The no sync command is missing on R2. 
E. There is a BGP version mismatch between R1 and R2. 
F. There is a TCP session establishment problem between R1 and R2. 
Answer: B 
21. The IPv6 address FE80::656:78FF:FE9A:BCDE is what type of address?
A. Multicast 
B. Link-local 
C. Site-local 
D. None of the above 
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Answer: B 
22. Which BGP Community option is used to prevent the advertisement of the BGP prefix to any other BGP peer? 
A. additive 
B. none 
C. no-export 
D. no-advertise 
E. local-as 
Answer: D 
23. BGP best route selection process is based on what? 
A. lowest cost 
B. highest bandwidth 
C. lowest hop-count 
D. path attributes 
E. lowest delay 
F. lowest delay and highest bandwidth 
Answer: D 
24. A route can be tagged with a community attribute using which configuration? 
A. The neighbor {ip-address} prefix-list command within the BGP routing process 
B. The neighbor {ip-address} update-source command within the BGP routing process 
C. The network command within the BGP routing process 
D. The set command within a route-map 
E. The send-community command within a route-map 
Answer: D 
25. With the DSCP value of "101110", what does the "11" in bits 1 and 2 indicate? 
A. AF Class 
B. Drop Probability 
C. CS (Class Selector Value) 
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D. PHB (Per-Hop Behavior) 
E. IP Precedence 
F. Queue Depth 
Answer: B 
26. Which of the following statements is correct regarding PIM Sparse Mode operations? 
A. It does not support all underlying unicast routing protocols like BGP. 
B. It supports shared trees only assuming all hosts want the multicast traffic. 
C. Receivers are "registered" with RP by their first-hop router. 
D. Receivers are "joined" to the Shared Tree (rooted at the RP) by their local Designated Router (DR). 
E. From the RP, traffic flows down a Source Tree to each receiver. 
Answer: D 
27. The show ip ospf database external command displays information about which OSPF LSA type? 
A. LSA type 1 
B. LSA type 2 
C. LSA type 3 
D. LSA type 5 
E. LSA type 7 
F. LSA type 9 
Answer: D 
28. What is used to provide read access to QoS configuration and statistics information on Cisco platforms that
support Modular QoS CLI (MQC)? 
A. Cisco NBAR Discovery 
B. Cisco AutoQoS 
C. Cisco Class-Based QoS MIB 
D. Cisco SDM QoS Wizard 
E. CDP 
Answer: C 
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29. What bit should be set in the link state PDUs in an IS-IS level-1-2 router to indicate that they are a potential
exit point out of the area? 
A. ATT (Attached) bit 
B. IS-Type bits 
C. P (Partition) bit 
D. Down bit 
E. PN (Pseudonode) bit 
F. ABR (Area Border Router) bit 
Answer: A 
30. Which MQC-based output queueing method is designed to support multiple traffic classes including VoIP
traffic, mission-critical traffic, bulk traffic, interactive traffic and default class traffic? 
A. CBWFQ 
B. CB-WRED 
C. LLQ 
D. Custom Queueing 
E. WRR Queueing 
Answer: C 
31. With EIGRP DUAL, a feasible successor is considered loop-free if which condition is true? 
A. Its AD is equal to the successor's FD 
B. Its AD is greater than the successor's FD 
C. Its AD is less than the successor's FD 
D. Its AD is equal to the metric of the successor 
E. Its FD is equal to the metric of the successor 
Answer: C 
32. Which two are characteristics of an IPv6 multicast address? (Choose two) 
A. First (most significant) octet is FF in hex 
B. Starts with a prefix of FE80 to FEBF in hex 
C. Starts with a prefix of FEC0 to FEFF in hex 
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D. Second octet contains a 4-bit multicast scope field 
E. Last 64 bit contains the modified MAC address of the Ethernet interface 
F. Is allocated from the unicast address space 
Answer: AD 
33. Which two statements regarding the IS-IS DIS election process are true? (Choose Two.) 
A. A priority of 0 will prevent a router from becoming a DIS. 
B. If the DIS becomes unavailable the backup DIS is promoted to DIS. 
C. Adding a router with a higher priority than the current DIS will result in the new router becoming DIS. 
D. Separate L1 and L2 election processes are held on a broadcast network. 
E. L1 routers on a broadcast network only establish adjacencies with the DIS. 
F. If there is a tie based on priority, the router whose attached interface has the lowest MAC address becomes the
DIS. 
Answer: CD 
34. Refer to the exhibit. Your customer has enabled IPv6 and IPv4 on routers R1 and R2, both running ISIS
routing protocol, and they can no longer reach R3 network 172.26.15.0/24 (R3 does not enable IPv6, enables IPv4
only). Which two steps should be taken to restore reachability to R3? (Choose Two.)  
A. Enable wide metrics. 
B. Enable OSPFv3 to support IPv4 and IPv6 simultaneously. 
C. Configure static routes to all unreachable networks and redistribute to IS-IS. 
D. Transition to IS-IS Multiple Topology Mode on R1 and R2. 
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E. Transition to IS-IS Multiple Topology Mode on R3. 
F. Create an IPv6 tunnel from R2 to R3. 
Answer: AD 
35. In Multicast VPN (MVPN) implementations, which two of the following statements are true regarding the
Default MDT Group? (Choose two) 
A. It is used for PIM control traffic. 
B. It is optionally configured for a high bandwidth multicast source to reduce multicast traffic replication to
uninterested PE routers. 
C. Within the VRF configuration in the PE router, multiple Default MDT groups are configured so each VRF can
support multiple multicast sources. 
D. There is a reduced multicast state in the MPLS core P routers. 
E. When multicast traffic exceeds a certain configured threshold, traffic from the Data MDT is switched to the
Default MDT to conserve bandwidth. 
Answer: AD 
36. Which two statements are correct with regard to route distinguisher as defined in RFC 4364 - AKA IP-VPN
(MPLS-VPN)? 
A. Route-Distinguisher is an 8 byte value used in creating unique VPNv4 address. 
B. Route-Distinguisher is an 8 byte BGP attribute value used in influencing BGP best path algorithm. 
C. The configuration to define Route-Distinguisher is:
ip vrf blue
rd 1:1
D. A route distinguisher can be imported and exported to and from a VRF.
Answer: AC 
37. When configuring Multicast VPN (MVPN) over an MPLS core, both the Default and Data MDT is configured
under which configuration mode? 
A. router(config)# 
B. router(config-if)# 
C. router(config-vrf)# 
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D. router(config-router)# 
E. router(config-router-af)# 
Answer: C 
38. Having the above BGP peerings, select the two configurations for rtrB that will fulfill the following criteria:  
A. router bgp 2
neighbor 1.1.1.1 remote-as 1
neighbor 1.1.1.1 route-map rtrA in
!
route-map rtrA permit 10
set community no-advertise
!
B. router bgp 2
neighbor 1.1.1.1 remote-as 1
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neighbor 1.1.1.1 route-map rtrA in
!
route-map rtrA permit 10
set community no-export
!
C. router bgp 2
neighbor 1.1.1.1 remote-as 1
neighbor 1.1.1.1 route-map rtrA in
neighbor 3.3.3.3 remote-as 3
neighbor 3.3.3.3 route-map rtrC out
!
route-map rtrA permit 10
set community 5
!
route-map rtrC deny 10
match community 5
!
D. router bgp 2
neighbor 1.1.1.1 remote-as 1
neighbor 1.1.1.1 route-map rtrA in
neighbor 3.3.3.3 remote-as 3
neighbor 3.3.3.3 route-map rtrC out
!
route-map rtrA permit 10
set community 5
!
route-map rtrC deny 10
match community 5
!
route-map rtrC permit 20
!
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Answer: BD 
39. router bgp 1
neighbor 1.1.1.1 remote-as 2
The above bgp configuration has what effect on the configured router? 
A. Allows incoming TCP connections destined to port 179 
B. Allows incoming TCP connections sourced from port 179 
C. Allows incoming TCP connections from 1.1.1.1 and destined to, or sourced from port 179 
D. Allows incoming TCP connections from 1.1.1.1 that are destined to port 179 
E. Allows incoming TCP connections from 1.1.1.1 that are sourced from port 179 
Answer: D 
40. The ASBR-summary LSA is: 
A. Generated by the ASBR and describes reachability to itself 
B. Generated by the ASBR and describes reachabilty to the ABR 
C. Generated by the ABR and describes reachabilty to the ASBR for routers in a different area from the ASBR 
D. Generated by the ABR and describes reachabilty to the ASBR for routers in the same area with the ASBR 
Answer: C 
41. RIPv2 differs from RIPv1 in that: 
A. It uses multicast address 224.0.0.10, instead of brodcast. 
B. It uses multicast address 224.0.0.9, instead of broadcast. 
C. It can use either multicast or broadcast addresses, instead of just broadcast. 
D. It sends incremental updates, instead of periodic updates. 
E. It is classless, instead of classful. 
F. It supports authentication, and RIPv1 does not. 
Answer: BEF 
42. The OSPF External LSA for prefix x.x.x.x exists in the OSPF database, but the prefix is not installed in the
routing table. Which are possible explanations? 
A. Inbound distribute-list is configured under the ospf process and it is denying x.x.x.x 
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B. ASBR originating the LSA is not reachable 
C. Route to the Forwarding Address in not an internal OSPF route 
D. Route to the Forwarding Address is an internal OSPF route 
E. Route to the ASBR does not follow the same path as the one to the Forwarding Address 
Answer: ABC 
43. If two routers, both reachable from one another, originate functionally equivalent type 2 external-LSAs (i.e.,
same destination, cost and non-zero forwarding address), which of the following statements would apply? 
A. Two LSAs will exist in the network for this destination, and both will be used. 
B. Two LSAs will exist in the network for this destination, but only the one generated by the highest RID ASBR
will be used. 
C. Only the LSA generated by the highest RID ASBR will exist in the network. 
D. Only the LSA generated by the lowest RID ASBR will exist in the network. 
Answer: C 
44. A Successor is: 
A. A neighbor that has met the feasibility condition 
B. A neighbor that has met the feasibility condition and has the lowest cost path towards the destination 
C. Any neighbor that is in the path towards the destination 
D. Any neighbor that is in the path towards the destination and whose reported distance equals the feasible
distance 
Answer: B 
45. According to RFC 3931, L2TPv3 utilizes the IANA assigned IP protocol ID of: 
A. 121 
B. 115 
C. 110 
D. 101 
E. 151 
F. 51 
Answer: B
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46. With the BGP peerings shown, which 3 solutions are most correct?  
A. rtrA and rtrD are route-reflector-clients; rtrB and rtrC are route reflectors part of the same cluster 
B. rtrA and rtrD are route-reflector-clients; rtrB and rtrC are route reflectors part of different clusters 
C. rtrA, rtrB and rtrC are part of a confederation sub-AS and rtrD is part of a different confederation sub-AS 
D. rtrA, rtrB are part of one confederation sub-AS and rtrC, rtrD are part of a different confederation sub-AS 
E. rtrA, rtrB and rtrC are part of a confederation sub-AS where rtrB is a route reflector and rtrA, rtrC are
route-reflector-clients 
Answer: BDE 
47. As described in RFC 3270, Short-Pipe Mode operation, the PE to CE egress polices are based upon: 
A. Topmost label EXP value 
B. Customer marking 
C. Innermost label EXP value 
D. QoS Groups/Discard Class 
E. Remarked IP ToS value 
F. MDRR quantam 
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Answer: B 
48. Identify the differences of Option 10A, as opposed to Option 10C, for InterAS VPN offerings. For option 10A: 
A. Greater scalability is offered 
B. The ASBR holds VPNv4 routes 
C. Relative technical simplicity is offered 
D. Lower relative security is offered 
E. Multihop E-BGP between ASBRs is utilized 
F. Better suitability for InterProvider VPNs is provided 
Answer: BCF 
49. Packed Cell Relay encapsulation with AToM includes which of the following? 
A. Tunnel label 
B. VC-label 
C. 5-byte ATM header 
D. Payload 
E. 4 byte ATM header 
F. Support for 30 packed cells 
Answer: ABDE 
50. Indentify the AVPs that must be present in L2TPv3 ICRQ messages: 
A. PW capabilities list 
B. Message type 
C. Assigned control connection ID 
D. PW type 
E. Remote session ID 
F. Hostname 
Answer: BDE 
51. Which of the following AToM traffic encapsulations require the use of a Control Word? 
A. Cell relay 
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B. aal5 
C. Ethernet VLAN 
D. Frame Relay 
E. HDLC 
F. PPP 
Answer: BD 
52. With VPLS, which protocol is used for label exchange and PW signalling 
A. MP-BGP 
B. LDP 
C. Directed LDP 
D. MTP 
E. BGP 
F. IGP 
Answer: C