1. Which statements are true about a cascaded FICON topology? Select three.
A. It requires Fabric binding to be configured in all the switches.
B. Only one hope (ie:traversing 2 switchs) is supported.
C. Separate ISLs must be used dedicated to FICON traffic.
D. Two byte link addressing as defined in FC-SB2, is mandatory.
Answer: A, B, D 
2. MDS3 _ 9509# install all system bootflash:m9500-sf1 ek9-mz.1.3.4.bin kickstart   
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Do you want to continue with the installation (y/n)? [n]
What is the reason the upgrade would not be hit-less for the entire switch, above?
A. The supervisor module requires a BIOS upgrade, which is disruptive.
B. The "rolling-upgrade" for module 2 requires a second "slc" to be hit-less.
C. Module 3 is an IPS-8 card, which does not support non-disruptive downgrades.
D. Nodule 3 is an IPS-8 and the switch does not have a second IPS-8 card for route diversity which could provide
a "stable" upgrade.
E. No reason - the upgrade is non-disruptive and hit-less.
Answer: C 
3. Which methods can be used to control Iscsi INITIATOR ACCESS TO VIRTUAL TARGETS? Select three.
A. Zoning
B. Specifying on which Gigabitethernet port the virtual target is advertised.
C. Setting up Iscsi PROXY MODE FOR THE INITIATORS
D. Specifying which IP subnet virtual target can be accessed
E. Enabling role-based access control.
Answer: A, B, C
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4. In a scenario with three lSLs between two switches, a single host in VSAN 5 on switch A, and a single storage
device on switch B in the same VSAN. What would be the effect on the lSLs if Flow based load balancing option
was enabled in VSAN 5?
A. Each subsequent frame will use the least utilized link, based on FCC.
B. Each subsequent frame will use a different link.
C. All frames between source and destination would follow same link for given flow.
D. Flow based load balancing is not enabled for an individual VSAN.
Answer: C 
5. Which organization produce standards related to SCSI, Fiber Channel or Fiber Channel protocol? Select two.
A. SNIA
B. T11 Committee
C. Cisco Systems
D. T10 Committee
E. T12 Committee
Answer: B, D 
6. What is the User-specified VSAN Ids range?
A. 1-4093
B. 2-4093
C. 2-4094
D. 2-4092
Answer: B 
7. What can be configured on a FCIP Profile?
A. Max and Min bandwidth, peer-info, compression ratio
B. Passive mode, peer-info, compression ratio
C. TCP port number, sack-enable, Max and Min bandwidth
D. Sack-enable, TCP port number peer-info
E. TCP port number, write accelerator compression ratio
Answer: C
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8. A Brocade 12000 in its native corePID mode (1) is connected to VSAN 1009 on an MDS. What is the correct
output of the "show vsan 1009" command?
A. vsan 1009 information:
name: VSAN 1009 state:active
interoperability mode:default loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid
operational state:up.
B. vsan 1009 information:
name: VSAN 1009 state:active
interoperability mode:1 loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid
operational state:up.
C. vsan 1009 information:
name: VSAN 1009 state:active
interoperability mode:2 loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid
operational state:up.
D. vsan 1009 information:
name: VSAN 1009 state:active
interoperability mode:3 loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid
operational state:up.
E. vsan 1009 information:
name: VSAN 1009 state:active
interoperability mode:Brocade Native loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid
operational state:up.
Answer: D 
9. What TCP feature reduces the chances of an oversized IP packets from being fragmented?
A. SACK
B. Extended ping
C. PMTU
D. Retransmit timeout
E. Send buffer size
Answer: C
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10. In Raid 0+1 the loss of a single drive:
A. Does not affect the redundancy of the array
B. Reduces the array redundancy to that of a Raid level 0
C. Same level of redundancy to that of a Raid level 1+0
D. Reduces the performance of the array
E. Has no affect what so ever on the array
Answer: B 
11. Which are functions of the Domain identifier Assigned (DIA) ILS? Select two
A. It indicates that a Principal Switch has been selected, and that the upstream neighbor Switch has been assigned
a Domain identifier.
B. It indicates that the receiving Switch can proceed requesting a Domain Identifier.
C. It indicates that the principal switch selection and address assignment phase is completed and the fabric is
operational.
D. It indicates that the principal switch selection is started, but a principal switch has not been identified yet.
E. It indicates that a Request Domain Identifier ILS has been received by principal switch.
Answer: A, B 
12. What zoning option can be used in interop mode 2 and 3?
A. domain / port
B. nWWN
C. fcid
D. lin zoning
E. sWWN
Answer: A 
13. You have a legacy JBOD that uses copper DB-9 connecters. You want to connect your JBOD to a Fiber only
Fiber Channel switch. You want to convert the DB-9 connection to multi mode Fiber Optics. What device would
you use?
A. HSSC
B. MIA
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C. GBIC
D. SFP
E. DUAL SC
Answer: B 
14. FCIP Write Acceleration most effectively addresses which disaster recovery challenge?
A. Recovery Time Objective (time to recover)
B. Recovery Point Objective (time DR data is "behind" Production data)
C. Tape backup over the WAN
D. Load balancing
E. Bandwidth constraints
Answer: C 
15. What port type can be used on a Fiber Channel switch when connecting a Fiber channel Hub that has one host
attached to the hub and it is on a public network?
A. Fabric Loop
B. FLP
C. F
D. Loop Fabric
E. TL
Answer: A 
16.What are the 3 types of Ordered Sets defined in Fiber Channel?
A. Offline sequence, online sequence, and link reset
B. Start of frame, end of frame, and idle
C. Frame delimiters, primitive signals, and primitive sequences
D. K28.5, D16.0,and D31.2
E. None of the above
Answer: C 
17. Hosts and storage are connected to 2 MDS units interconnected by lSLs in the following manner:
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All default zones are set to deny and IVR is not enabled. Trunking is disabled on all of the lSLs, which reside in
VSAN 1. How many pairs of sourc-destination flows are possible over the ISLs in this configuration?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: B 
18. When using Fcanalyzer to capture a flow from FCID 010300 what would be the proper command?
A. Can not filter at FCID level on Fcanalyzer
B. MDS#fcanalyze local display-filter (mdshdr.vsan==1)&&((fc.d_id==01300)or(fc.s_id==01300))
C. MDS(config)#fcanalyze locaal display-filter (mdshdr.vsan==1)&&((fc.d_id==01300)or(fc.s_id==01300))
D. MDS(config)#fcanalyze display-filter (mdshdr.vsan==1)&&((fc.d_id==01300)or(fc.s_id==01300))
E. MDS(config)#fcanalyze display-filter (mdshdr.vsan==0x01)&&((fc.d_id==01300)or(fc.s_id==01300))
Answer: C 
19. Which are true about the advertisement methods for Iscsi targets implemented by the MDS 9000? Select two.
A. By default, Iscsi TARGETS ARE ADVERTISED ON ALL gigabit Ethernet interfaces and subinterfaces.
B. By default Iscsi TARGETS ARE NOT ADVERTISED AND THE ADMINISTRATOR CAN CHOOSE
WHETHER TO ADVERTISE THEM OR NOT BY CHANGING THE SWITCH CONFIGURATION.
C. By default, Iscsi targets are advertised only on Gigabit Ethernet interfaces but not on subinterfaces.
D. By default, Iscsi targets are advertised on Gigabit Ethernet subinterfaces only but not on the main Gigabit
Ethernet interfaces.
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E. It can be limited by the administrator by configuring the Gigabit Ethernet interfaces over which static iSCSI
targets are advertised.
Answer: A, E 
20. What standard association is working in the definition of the Iscsi and Fiber Channel protocols respectively?
A. SNIA and IETF
B. FCIA and IETF
C. IETF and ANSI
D. FCIA and SNIA
E. SNIA and T11
Answer: C 
21. What statement is NOT correct depending on the below output: 
A. Interface iscsi 2/5 is in "no shut" status.
B. Both the discovery and the target sessions exist for this iscsi connection.
C. Iscsi target has been statically configured
D. Only one initiator can connect to this target.
E. Virtual target name is configured as "Seagate-jbod-lun: in the switch configuration.
Answer: B 
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22. There are two 2 Gbps FC links, 2Gbps ISLs port formed into a single port channel connecting two switches
together. What is the initial FSPF cost and resulting FSPF cost of the port channel if ISLs failed and one of the FC
links becomes inoperable?
A. 250:500
B. 250:250
C. 500:250
D. 500:500
E. 1000:1000
Answer: B 
23. What statement is true?
A. R_RDY is used for buffer-to buffer flow control and ACK_1 frames are used to perform end-to-end flow
control.
B. R_RDY is used for buffer-to buffer flow control and ACK_0 frames are used to perform end-to-end flow
control.
C. R_RDY is used for buffer-to buffer flow control and ACK_0 and ACK_N frames are used to perform
end-to-end flow control.
D. VC_RDY is used for buffer-to buffer flow control and ACK_0 frames are used to perform end-to-end flow
control.
E. Class F only uses buffer-to buffer flow control.
Answer: A 
24. To ensure FCID persistencyais persistent, what needs to be configured?
A. Static VSAN ID
B. Static port ID
C. Static FC_ID
D. Static port map
E. Static Domain ID
Answer: E 
25. What parameter does not need to be compatible for a port-channel to come up between 2 switches?
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A. Trunk mode
B. Speed
C. Port VSAN
D. Port allowed VSAN list
E. Port set to (PC) or port-channel mode
Answer: E 
26. A fabric Zone Merge Failure between fabric A and fabric B will result if:
A. The active zoneset in both fabric A and fabric B is an exact match before the merge it attempted.
B. The active zoneset in fabric A has more zones than the active zoneset in fabric B.
C. A zone in fabric A contains 3 members, while the same zone name in fabric B contains 4 members.
D. Zone names used in fabric A are 10 characters, while the zone names in fabric B contain less than 10
characters.
E. None of the above.
Answer: C 
27.Exhibit 
Assume that all the Cat6Ks in the exhibit above are connected to the MDS 9000 IPS blades and the workstation in
the picture is connected to the same Cat6k network.
Can the workstation act as a management station for the MDS 9000s?
A. Yes, because it has IP connectivity to the MDS 9000 through the FCIP endpoints configured on the MDS 9000s
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(through the Gigabit Ethernet interfaces on the IPS modules)
B. Yes, but only if IPFC is configured as well on the MDS 9000 switches
C. No, the TCP/IP traffic is terminated on the IPS blade itself, so the workstation would not be able to
communicate with the MDS 9000 supervisors to be able to manage them.
D. Yes, but only if IVR is configured on the MDS 9000
E. Yes, if the VLAN configuration on the Cat6k matches the VSAN configuration on the MDS 9000, and the
Workstation is configured as part of the management VLAN.
Answer: C 
28. While in configuration mode, what command will allow a user to view interface 4 on module 2 without
leaving the current mode?
A. "exit" then "port show 4 module 2"
B. "do show interface <type>2/4
C. "session show interface <type>2/4"
D. "show mod 2 int 4"
E. None of the above - It is not possible to show the interface without ending configuration mode.
Answer: B 
29. Exhibit button: 
The configured domain ID for VSAN 8 was changed from 0x30 to 0x97 and fcdomain was then restarted with the
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command, fcdomain restart disruptive vsan 8.VSAN 8 was then changed to interop mode 1.
What statement is true?
A. I/O between host1 - disk2 was disrupted. I/O between disk1 - disk2 was not disrupted.
B. I/O between disk1 - disk2 and host1 - disk2 was disrupted.
C. I/O between host1 - disk2 is down until vsan 333 is also configured for interop mode 1.
D. I/O between host1 - disk2 is down until the ivr zoneset is reactivated.
E. I/O between host1 - disk2 is down until the ivr vsan topology is reactivated.
Answer: A 
30. What is true about MDS FCIP Profiles?
A. The Profile Ids must match the FCIP interface ID.
B. Only one FCIP interface per profile.
C. FCIP profile contains the assigned IP interface for which it is bound to.
D. FCIP profile is not required if only one FCIP interface is used.
E. FCIP Profile is assigned to a GIGE interface.
Answer: C 
31. How can ISCSI protocol health and status can be best determined?
A. Span the ISCSI interface and use PAA to view ISCSI PDU.
B. Use the Monitor function of the Device manager.
C. Attach to IPS module and do <sh ips iscsi stats detail>
D. From CLI enable prompt do <sh ips iscsi stats detail>
E. From CLI enable prompt do <Show Iscsi STATS DETAIL>
Answer: E 
32. What command can be used to find the first available FICON port number to bind to a newly created
port-channel on an MDS 9120 switch?
A. Show port-channel database
B. Show ficon next-available port-number
C. Show ficon first-available port-number
D. It is not possible to configure FICON on the MDS 9120 switch.
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E. Port-channel carrying FICON VSANs are not bound to a FICON port number the physical links making up the
port-channel already have FICON port numbers.
Answer: C 
33. What statement is true?
A. ISL can not link a VSAN between two MDS switches.
B. EISL frames have an additional header.
C. ISL can not be in a Port Channel.
D. EISL can not be in a Port Channel.
E. ISL can only pass VSAN 1.
Answer: B 
34. What statement is true with regards to VSANs and zones?
A. Zones limit unicast, multicast, and broadcast traffic.
B. Routing, naming and zoning protocols are not available on a per VSAN basis.
C. Zones enforce membership only at the source and destination ports.
D. Zones enforce membership at each E port, source port, and destination ports.
E. None of these statements are true.
Answer: C 
35. What step must be performed before you can enable the FICON feature on a MDS switch?
A. You must physically bind all FICON interfaces to FICON port numbers.
B. You must create separate VSANs for FCP and FICON traffic.
C. You must enable in Order Delivery for the FICON VSAN.
D. You must set the default zone to deny for the FICON VSAN.
E. None of the above.
Answer: C 
36. Switch-to-Switch and Switch-to-Host security are implemented in an enterprise SAN for what reasons?
A. Enables Fabric logins to communicate with an AAA server.
B. Prevent un-authorized Fabric or Node from being connected and isolates the link.
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C. Shuts all unused interfaces and requires privileged password to perform "no shut"
D. Enables logging of all HBA based transactions in the Fabric.
E. Enable un-affected VSANs to continue carrying traffic in an isolated ISL.
Answer: B 
37. The function of "Boot Loader" during system startup is to?
A. Uncompress loaded kickstart software.
B. Runs power-on self test and memory test.
C. Load last saved running configuration.
D. Load and run system image
E. None of the above.
Answer: A 
38. Select the TRUE statement regarding FCIP compression:
A. Compression ratio achieved may vary with the data patterns being compresses.
B. It must be enabled at both ends of an FCIP tunnel.
C. It has 3 modes, high-throughput, high-compression, and high-bandwidth.
D. It is performed by the MDS Active supervisor prior to transmission on the GE port.
E. FCIP compression requires an additional license be added along with the SAN Extension.
Answer: B 
39. What statement is not correct for inter vsan routing?
A. When using the IVR feature, all border switches in a given fabric must be Cisco MDS switches.
B. None-MDS switches may be present in the transit VSANs if the interop mode 1 option is enabled.
C. IVR is not supported in any interop modes.
D. Inter-VSAN control traffic that is allowed includes Switch-to Switch fcpf ROUTING INFORMATION.
E. On Cisco MDS 9000 switches you can configure up to 200 iVZs and 2000 IVZ members.
Answer: C 
40. What is TCP fast recovery?
A. It is an algorithm that uses fast retransmit when a missing segment is detected.
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B. It is an algorithm that initiates slow start instead of congestion avoidance after fast retransmit sends what
appears to be the missing segment.
C. It is an algorithm that starts congestion avoidance instead of slow start after fast retransmit sends what appears
to be the missing segment.
D. It is an algorithm that after a new connection is established with a host on another network, initializes the
congestion window to one segment and each time an ACK is received, increases the congestion window by one
segment.
Answer: C 
41. Which prerequisites must be configured before enabling FICON?
A. Fabric Binding 
Presistent FCID
Static Domain ID
B. Fabric Binding
Static Domain ID
C. Fabric Binding
In Order Delivery
Static Domain ID
D. Static Domain ID
In Order Delivery
E. Presistent FCID
Static Domain ID
Answer: C 
42. Given: Host-----------MDS SwitchA----------MDS switchB---------Storage array with an FC Analyzer
connected toSwitch B.
What port types are required to be configured on the switches in this network for proper use of SPAN and monitor
traffic flow from host to storage array?
A. ST port on switchA and a SD port on switchB
B. SD port on switchA and a ST port on switchB
C. SD port on both switchA and on switchB
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D. Span port on switchA and a TE port on switchB
E. ST port on both switchA and switchB
Answer: A 
43. You have a MDS9509 switch with a 16 port FC module in slot 1, an 8 port IPS module in slot 2, and a 32 port
FC module in slot 3. What is the FICON port number of interface FC 3/1?
A. 11
B. 10
C. 41
D. 40
E. 20
Answer: D 
44. The acronym CUP refers to:
A. Control Unit Port - the physical port to the switch that the storage is attached.
B. Channel Unit Port - the physical port in the switch that connects to the mainframe.
C. Channel Unit Port - a logical port in the switch used to enable management from the mainframe
D. Control Unit Port - a logical port in which the switch is used to enable management from the mainframe.
E. Control Unit Port - the port used to access the storage when multiple paths exist.
Answer: D 
45. An attaching host acquires a Fiber Channel ID in the accept from what process?
A. FLOGI
B. PLOGI
C. LOGIN
D. PRLI
E. BA_ACC
Answer: A 
46. You connect 2 switches together with an ISL. Which frames would be used for negotiations between the 2
EPorts? Select two.
TestInside    350-040
A. ELP
B. ESC
C. PLOGI
D. FLOGI
E. PRLI
Answer: A, B 
47. What is the general timer for missing events within a sequence?
A. Connection Request Time -out
B. Error Detect Time -out
C. Resource Allocation Time -out
D. Receiver - Transmitter Time -out
E. Missing Events Time -out
Answer: B 
48. What is the purpose of the open fiber control system?
A. It defines the flow control mechanism for Fiber Channel.
B. It defines the mechanism in which Fiber Channel switches communicate with Gbics.
C. It defines a safety mechanism for SW laser data links.
D. It defines the distance limitation for different types of lasers.
E. It specifies the maximum bit error rate for Fiber channel links.
Answer: C 
49. What LUN is used when a host issues a SCSI CDB Report LUNs query to a target?
A. One query with LUN 0 only
B. One query with LUN 1 only
C. One query with all LUNs which are allowed to be accessed by host
D. Single query for each LUN that is allowed to be accessed by host
E. No LUN number field in "Report LUNs" query
Answer: E 
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50. What switch Fabric internal Link services (SW_ILS) command indicates if the FCIP connection is a E-Port or
a B-Port?
A. ESC
B. EFP
C. ELP
D. LSU
E. EPP
Answer: C 
51. What set of Primitive signals are valid for a arbitrated loop?
A. NOS, LOS, LR, LRR
B. SOF, EOF, ABTS, ACK
C. LIFA, LIPA, LIHA, LISA
D. LIP, LR, LRR, SOF
E. R_RDY, CL, OPN, ARB
Answer: E 
52. Exhibit: 
Assume that FCIP write accelerator has been enabled between MDS1 and MDS2. 
What will be the X,Y,Z value respectively?
A. X = 50, Y = 10, Z = 10
B. X = 50, Y = ff, Z = 10
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C. X = 10, Y = ff, Z = 10
D. X = ff, Y = ff, Z = 1
E. X = 10, Y = 50, Z = 10
Answer: C 
53. Read only zones on MDS switches are implemented using:
A. SCSI I/O operation type
B. LUN masking
C. LUN mapping
D. LUN binding
E. LUN trespass
Answer: A 
54. During FICON CHANNEL PORT INITIALIZATION IN A CASCADED ficon ENVIRONMENT,
IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE FICON channel completes its PLOGI to the Fabric Controller, it then:
A. Begins performing PLOGIs with each Control Unit for each link address defined on this channel path.
B. Requests SCR with the switch
C. Requests RNID with the switch
D. Performs a PLOGI to the Management Server
E. Issues a QSA ELS command
Answer: E 
55. An IT department is planning to implement an FC fabric between an MDS 9120 and a MDS 9506 with 2
Supervisors and a 32-Port switching module, utilizing 2 EISLs in a port channel. The best port configuration
allowing for maximum host connectivity is:
A. 9120, ports fc 1/1, fc 1/2 to 9506, ports fc 1/1, 1/2
B. 9120, ports fc 1/1, fc 1/8 to 9506, ports fc 1/1, 1/5
C. 9120, ports fc 1/2, fc 1/4 to 9506, ports fc 1/2, 1/4
D. 9120, ports fc 1/2, fc 1/4 to 9506, ports fc 1/1, 1/2
E. 9120, ports fc 1/2, fc 1/4 to 9506, ports fc 1/1, 1/5
Answer: E
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56. Which conditions must exist for a FICON-enabled VSAN on an MDS 9216 switch, assuming that fiber
channel zones are not used to control access to FICON-attached devices? Select three.
A. Fabric binding
B. Default zone permit
C. In-order delivery of frames
D. CUP resides in a zone in the active zonest.
E. Source_ID/Destination_ID/Exchange_ID load balancing
Answer: A, B, C 
57. Exhibit: 
What is the maximum rate at which a host with a 2Gb/s HBA can write to a disk with a 2Gb/s fiber channel
adapter if it must traverse a three port, 1Gb/s per portchannel if srcID/dstID load balancing is configured?
A. 1Gb/s
B. 2Gb/s
C. 3Gb/s
D. 3.2Gb/s
E. 4Gb/s
Answer: B 
58. How is a debug and run sent to a file on an MDS?
A. debug (what your debugging) > logfile debugout
B. set log debug (then run debug)
C. debug logfile debugout (then run debug)
D. debug can only go the screen or FTP server
E. By default they go to a logfile
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Answer: A 
59. What SCSI command does a target send to an initiator after the initiator sends the target a write command?
A. Write Ready
B. FLOGI
C. RSCN
D. Transfer Ready
E. B2B Credit Decrement
Answer: D 
60. What Fiber Channel transport functions can be found within the FC-2 level?
A. Exchange Option, Information Unit, and Sequence
B. Session, Exchange and Information Unit
C. Sequence, Frame and Flow Control
D. Sequence, Frame, and Information Unit
E. Exchange management, Link Control and Flow control
Answer: E 
61. Exhibit: 
Each GigE interface on the MDS 9509 -1 is peering with a corresponding GigE interface on the MDS 9509-2 via
a point-to-point circuit on the SONET ring. A FCIP tunnel is configured and bound to each GE interface
Furthermore, the two FCIP tunnels are configured in a potchannel. The circuits in the optical ring are configured
so that the traffic over the FCIP tunnel 1 and 2 flows in opposite directions and no SONET protection is
TestInside    350-040
configured.
In the event of failure of span A in the ring, what would occur?
A. After FSPF re-convergence, all traffic would flow over FCIP tunnel 2.
B. All traffic flows over FCIP tunnel 1 would be lost.
C. FCIP tunnel 1 would be temporarily down while the SONET ring healed, then traffic would continue to flow
over FCIP Tunnel 1.
D. The SONET ring would heal within 50ms and traffic would continue flowing as before the Span A Failure.
E. No FSPF re-convergence occurs all traffic would flow over FCIP tunnel 2
Answer: E 
62. FC timers E_D_TOV, R_A_TOV and D_S_TOV:
A. Can be set to be different for each VSAN
B. Can be changed only for the entire switch and not VSANs
C. Only R_A_TOV timer can be set for individual VSANS
D. Cannot be changed
E. Can be set only on IVR enabled switches
Answer: A 
63. IVR Enabled MDS Switch uses which of following to identify IVR zone members?
A. pwwn only
B. fcid only
C. pwwn and domain id
D. pwwn and vsan id
E. pwwn and fcid
Answer: D