1. What IE is not mandatory in a Q.931 Service msg?
A. Bearer capability
B. Channel ID
C. Message Type
D. Change Status
E. Call Reference
Answer: A 
2. The purpose of Administrative Distance, as used by Cisco routers, is:
A. To choose between routes from different routing protocols when receiving updates for the same network
B. To identify which routing protocol forwarded the update
C. To define the distance to the destination used in deciding the best path
D. To be used only for administrative purposes
Answer: A 
3. What is the maximum PMD value of a 100km fiber segment if the cable is specified with 0.5ps/km ? (worst
case)?
A. 0.005ps
B. .05ps
C. 5ps
D. 50ps
E. 500ps
Answer: C 
4. What is the equivalent of 50 GHz spacing in DWDM in terms of nm?
A. 1.6 nm
B. 0.8 nm
C. 0.4 nm
D. 0.2 nm
Answer: C 
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5. Click the Exhibit to view the topology.  
Router A has a 512K-access port into the frame relay cloud.  Router B has 128K-access port into the frame relay
cloud.  The two routers are connected with symmetrical PVCs that are configured for 64K committed
information rate (CIR).  What Frame Relay Traffic Shaping map-class sub-command should be entered on
Router A to prevent workstation A from overrunning the access port on Router B?
A. frame-relay traffic-rate 128000 512000
B. frame-relay traffic-rate 64000 512000
C. frame-relay traffic-rate 512000 64000
D. frame-relay traffic-rate 128000 64000
E. frame-relay traffic-rate 64000 128000
Answer: E 
6. If a host sends a TCP segment with the RST flag set, it means:
A. The receiver should send all data in the reassembly buffer to the application receiving it immediately.
B. The receiver should reset the session.
C. Any routers between the source and destination hosts should reset the state of the connection in their buffers.
D. The receiver should make certain its send buffer is pushed onto the wire.
Answer: B 
7. How many E1 channels can STM-1 frame transport?
A. 7
B. 21
C. 63
D. 84
Answer: C 
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8. BGP can implement a policy of  'Route Dampening' to control route instability. What statement about route
dampening is NOT correct?
A. A numeric penalty is applied to a route each time it flaps.
B. The penalty is exponentially decayed according to parameters, such as half-life-time.
C. The history of unstable routes is forwarded back to the sender to control future updates.
D. The route is eventually suppressed based on a configurable 'suppress limit'.
Answer: C 
9. MPLS traffic engineering data is carried by:
A. Opaque LSAs or IS-IS TLVs
B. BGP MEDs
C. RTP or RTCP packets
D. MBGP
Answer: A 
10. Click the Exhibit button.  
In the diagram, if a resilient packet ring (RPR) is built between ML-series cards, ____ restoration exists on the
ring, while the redundant connections to the 7609 rely on _____protection.
A. 50 ms, STP
B. STP, STP
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C. STP, 1+1 APS
D. 50ms, 50ms
Answer: A 
11. How many E-1s can be aggregated (maximum) and mapped into a VC-12 Signal?
A. 1
B. 7
C. 14
D. 28
E. 32
Answer: A 
12. Click the Exhibit button.  
A customer has improperly installed a 2-node OC-12 SRP ring using dark fiber.  Based on the printout from each
node shown in the exhibit, what is the problem?
A. Misconfigured timing
B. Single faulty span or fiber between nodes
C. A-B side SRP interfaces are fiber-looped on each node
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D. A-B side TX-TX and RX-RX fibers connected between nodes
E. A-A and B-B side SRP interfaces connected between nodes
Answer: C 
13. Click the Exhibit button.  
Which are the two possible circuit sizes for an E-series shared packet ring in the network shown in the exhibit?
A. STS-1
B. STS-3c
C. STS-6c
D. STS-9c
E. STS-12c
Answer: AB 
14. What is Fast EtherChannel?
A. A feature to bundle multiple Ethernet point-to-point links quickly into one logical high speed link
B. A feature to bundle multiple Fast-Ethernet point-to-point links into one logical high speed link
C. Another name for full-duplex Fast Ethernet
D. Another name for Gigabit Ethernet
E. None of the above
Answer: B 
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15. Click the Exhibit button to view the configuration.  
Upon deleting an IOS image file from flash, an execution of show flash shows the file still in flash, with a 'D'
preceding it (as shown in the exhibit).  What step must be taken in order to remove the file completely?
A. Erase the file from flash
B. Format the flash device
C. Replace the flash card - it is defective
D. Execute a squeeze command on the flash device
Answer: D 
16. Click the Exhibit button to view the topology.  
According to the diagram, what attribute is initiated by AS200 (IBGP) to give preference to the path A or D traffic
will take when going from AS200 to AS100 . What attribute is initiated by AS200 (EBGP) to give preference to
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the path B or C traffic will take when going from AS100 to AS200?
A. MED; Origin
B. MED; Local Preference
C. Community; Origin
D. Local Preference; MED
E. Origin; Community
Answer: D 
17. Which three events might you diagnose as the cause of a line switching event?
A. Loss of signal and frame
B. Line AIS (all ones in STS pointer)
C. Routine exercises
D. Excessive signaling messages
E. Excessive bit errors in overhead
F. Switched photon elements
Answer: ABE 
18. While entering commands on a console, the break key is pressed accidentally and the router reboots.  What
action could disable this problem?
A. In configuration mode, enter disable break.
B. In configuration mode, enter no service break.
C. Change the configuration register.
D. Replace the router - this is an invalid response to pressing the break key when past 60 seconds after boot.
Answer: C 
19. What is NOT an ATM class of service?
A. CBR
B. VBR-t
C. ABR
D. UBR
E. CAR
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Answer: E 
20. What describes a technique, used to encapsulate voice (NOT data) over ATM?
A. RFC 1483
B. LANE
C. AAL-1
D. RFC 1577
Answer: C 
21. What is the transmission limitation on a single 1550 nm signal, at OC-192 bit-rate, over certified SMF-28 fiber
using no dispersion compensation?
A. Four-wave mixing
B. Polarization-mode dispersion
C. Chromatic dispersion
D. Attenuation
Answer: C 
22. In BGP, why should a Route Reflector be used?
A. To overcome issues of split-horizon within BGP
B. To reduce the number of External BGP peers by allowing updates to 'reflect' without the need to be fully
meshed
C. To allow the router to 'reflect' updates from one Internal BGP speaker to another without the need to be fully
meshed
D. To divide Autonomous Systems into mini-Autonomous Systems, allowing the reduction in the number of peers
E. None of the above
Answer: C 
23. What statement is true concerning SDH?
A. To manage an SDH network, an optical service channel in the ADM is required.
B. An STM-16 signal equates to 10Gbit/s.
C. Orderwire provides a 64kbss voice channel for communication between RSTEs.
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D. All SDH network elements must have optical interfaces.
Answer: C 
24. What is true about the DLCI field in the Frame Relay header?
A. It consists of two portions, source and destination, which map data to a logical channel.
B. It generally has significance only between the local switch and the DTE device.
C. It is an optional field in the ITU-T specification.
D. It is present only in data frames sent through the network.
Answer: B 
25. Where is there a major difference between SONET and SDH?
A. Interpretation of Overhead
B. Regeneration
C. Multiplexing
D. Optical line bit rates
E. Ring topologies supported
Answer: AC 
26. EIGRP applies the principle of Feasible Successor (FS)  in resolving a new path to a lost route. What
statement regarding the FS is correct?
A. Information is stored for the FS as part of the Link-State Routing updates forwarded for EIGRP.
B. EIGRP estimates the FS from each neighbor for each network after an exchange of database information during
the normal update process. It uses this information for path selection when a route is lost.
C. When EIGRP is notified that a route is lost, it will always send requests to each neighbor for ways to reach the
lost route. The neighbor that returns the best path will qualify as the FS.
D. EIGRP nominates a central router as the FS for all lost routes during configuration.
Answer: B 
27. If the PMD coefficient of a given fiber is 4 ps and the distance under consideration is 625Km calculate the
effect of dispersion (differential group delay) due to PMD.
A. 100ps
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B. 200ps
C. 50ps
D. 150ps
Answer: A 
28. What is the correct relative switching priority in a BLSR ring (higher to lower)?
A. Protection Lockout, Manual Switch, Forced Switch
B. Forced Switch, Manual Switch, Signal Degrade
C. Signal Fail, Signal Degrade, Manual Switch
D. Protection Lockout, Manual Switch, Path AIS
E. Signal Degrade, Signal Fail, Manual Switch
Answer: C 
29. Click the Exhibit button to view the topology.  
With RIP running, what command would be used to set the default route on Router 2 to 171.68.64.6 (Router 3)?
A. ip default-network 171.68.64.6
B. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 171.68.64.6
C. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 171.68.64.6
D. None of the above
Answer: C
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30. Telcordia has defined national ISDN, which is basically within the construct of Q.931 protocol with some
modifications. If National ISDN requires a new information element (IE), how will this need be handled?
A. No new IE can be defined by standard bodies other than ITU-T; therefore, Telcordia must pass the information
in open fields of existing IE.
B. Telcorida has to define a new codeset (CS) 0 IE.
C. Telcordia should define a new CS7 IE
D. Telcordia should define a new CS5 IE
E. Use CS8 IE
Answer: D 
31. What statement is correct regarding Virtual LANs (VLANs)?
A. It is permissible to bridge inside a VLAN, but not to route between VLANs.
B. It is not permissible to bridge inside a VLAN, but it is valid to route between VLANs.
C. It is permissible to bridge inside a VLAN and to route between VLANs.
D. It is not permissible to bridge inside or route between VLANs.
Answer: C 
32. When using IS-IS for IP routing, Dual IS-IS defined by RFC 1195, what is true? (multiple answer)
A. It is necessary to configure a NSAP address.
B. It is not possible to perform both IP and CLNS routing wih the same process.
C. IP address and subnet information is carried in the TLV field on the L-1/L-1 LSPs.
D. Dual IS-IS does not support VLSM information.
Answer: AC 
33. What is not one of the five key functional areas for Cisco Transport Manager?
A. Accounting
B. Configuration
C. Fault
D. Inventory
E. Performance
Answer: A
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34. Click the Exhibit button to view the configuration.  
The network associated with Router A's Ethernet 0 port is designed to be publicly accessible. However, Router B's
Token Ring 0 network should be accessible only to hosts from Router A's Ethernet 0 network. What access list for
Router B would accomplish this?
A. access-list 99 permit 191.8.1.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 99 deny 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255
B. access-list 103 permit 191.8.1.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 103 deny 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255
C. access-list 88 deny 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255
access-list 88 permit 191.8.1.0 0.0.0.255
D. access-list 3 permit 191.8.1.0 255.255.255.0
access-list 3 deny 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
E. access-list 99 permit 191.8.10.0 0.0.0.0
access-list 99 deny 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255
Answer: A
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35. What are the four main parts of an EDFA?
A. Isolator, coupler, splitter, and pump
B. Isolator, splitter, pump, and filter
C. Coupler, splitter, pump, and doped fiber
D. Isolator, coupler, pump, and doped fiber
E. Coupler, pump, doped fiber, AWG
Answer: D 
36. What is the designation for regenerators that are bit rate dependent?
A. 1R
B. 2R
C. 3R
D. 1R, 2R and 3R
Answer: C 
37. How many bytes are dedicated to the Path Overhead in an STS-3 Frame?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 9
D. 18
E. 24
Answer: C 
38. If a Dialer Profile exists in the local configuration of a router, what is true?
A. A virtual-access password is configured automatically.
B. A virtual-access interface will inherit all configurations from the dialer profile.
C. AAA parameters cannot be applied to an interface.
D. None of the above
Answer: B 
39. Click the Exhibit button to view the graph. 
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For the figure shown, what type of laser is being used? (Note:  Measurement taken at launch point.)
A. 1310nm Long Reach (LR)
B. 1310nm Short Reach (SR)
C. 1510nm Long Reach (LR)
D. 1550nm Long Reach (LR)
E. 1550nm Short Reach (SR)
Answer: E 
40. Why is an STM-1 2F MS-SPRing not feasible?
A. An equal amount of working and protect bandwidth is needed per span.
B. Standards have not yet been defined for STM-1 MS-SPRings.
C. There is not enough bandwidth in an STM-1 ring to justify MS-SPRing configuration.
D. DCC bandwidth is not large enough to handle K1/K2 processing.
E. Switch times would exceed 50ms on an STM-1 MS-SPRing.
Answer: A 
41. How much dispersion will a pulse accumulate in 20 km if it has a dispersion figure of 17 ps/nm/km?
A. 34 ps/nm
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B. 68 ps/nm
C. 340 ps/nm
D. 680 ps/nm
E. 3400 ps/nm
Answer: C 
42. In order to create a DCC tunnel in the ONS 15454, which TWO statements are necessary conditions? 
1. LDCC tunnels need to be available. 
2. The OC-N port where the DCC will be tunneled needs to be enabled. 
3. A customer circuit must be provisioned first. 
4. Only Ports 1&3 of the OC-3 card can tunnel DCC.
5. SDCC needs to be tunneled separately for transmit and receive directions
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 4
C. 1 and 5
D. 3 and 5
Answer: A 
43. Click the Exhibit button to view the topology.  
In the MPLS network shown, which subnets would be in the same Forwarding Equivalence Class (FEC) on router
PE1:
A. 172.16.3.0/24 and 193.1.1.0/28
B. 172.16.1.0/24 and 172.16.2.0/24
C. 172.16.1.0/24 and 193.1.1.0/28
D. 172.16.1.0/24, 172.16.2.0/24, and 172.16.3.0/24
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Answer: C 
44. What is a reason for using amplifiers with more than one stage?
A. To suppress ASE noise
B. To increase ASE noise
C. To maintain gain
D. To lower OSNR
Answer: D 
45. Which can be defined as the mean optical power required to obtain a required BER at a given bit rate?
A. Receiver sensitivity
B. Receiver propagation power delay
C. Transmitter sensitivity
D. Transmitter power
E. None of the above
Answer: A 
46. What is the purpose of Dual Ring Interconnect in SONET rings?
A. Protects signals against a node failure in a single ring
B. Protects signals when a ring switch fails
C. Protects signals when multiple span switches fail
D. Protects pre-emptible traffic from being dropped when a ring switch occurs
E. Protects signals against intermediate node failures between rings
Answer: E 
47. Why is it important to leave some residual dispersion at an amplifier site when 10Gb/s signals in a DWDM
system have gone through a dispersion compensating device?
A. Reduces the effect of polarization mode dispersion
B. Avoids gain tilt through the amplifier
C. Compensating to zero dispersion has too much loss penalty
D. Suppresses some non-linear effects like XPM and SPM
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E. None of the above
Answer: D 
48. What SAN topology has the ability to scale to very large networks?
A. Switched Fabric
B. Arbitrated Loop
C. Point to Multipoint
D. Loop Channel bypass
E. Point to Point
Answer: A 
49. RPR capability on the ML-series cards increases the scalability of the ML architecture from 10 cards per ring
to how many cards per ring?
A. 16
B. 32
C. 255
D. 4080
Answer: B 
50. Click the Exhibit button to view the topology.  
In the MPLS network shown, how many routing tables are on Router A?
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A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: A 
51. Click the Exhibit button.  
The exhibit represents a power to frequency graph of a modulated optical signal with a base frequency of 193.00
THz. What do the smaller peaks on each side of the base frequency represent?
A. Pink noise of the transmitter
B. Four-wave mixing products
C. Modulation sidebands of the optical signal
D. Other wavelengths in a DWDM system
E. Gain tilt of wavelengths in a DWDM system
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Answer: C